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BMAD
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Allow for a random set of 32 numbers to be chosen from 0 to 100.

pair and average the 32 numbers in the order they appear ([1,2]; [3,4],...) to make 16 numbers

pair and average each of the 16 averaged numbers to make 8 new numbers

continue in this fashion until you have only 1 number.

What is the probability that this number will be be in the 40's?

Edited by BMAD
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I'm getting the answer of about 47.32%

Here is how I'm getting it. 

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