BMAD 64 Report post Posted October 8, 2015 (edited) Allow for a random set of 32 numbers to be chosen from 0 to 100.pair and average the 32 numbers in the order they appear ([1,2]; [3,4],...) to make 16 numberspair and average each of the 16 averaged numbers to make 8 new numberscontinue in this fashion until you have only 1 number.What is the probability that this number will be be in the 40's? Edited October 8, 2015 by BMAD Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
1 k-man 26 Report post Posted October 8, 2015 I'm getting the answer of about 47.32%Here is how I'm getting it. Standard deviation (SD) of the entire population [0-100] is approximately 29.3. We take a sample of size n=32 from the population and calculate the mean. The standard error will be about SE=SD/sqrt(n) ~ 5.18. This means that the mean of a sample will follow a normal distribution with the mean of 50 and standard deviation of ~5.18. Half of sample means will be above 50 and half will be below. To be in the 40s the sample mean needs to be above the 40 mark. Z score of the 40 mark is -1.93 and the p-value is 0.0268, which means that there is 2.68% chance that the mean of a sample will be below 40 resulting in the answer of .5 - .0268 = .4732 Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
0 jasen 4 Report post Posted October 9, 2015 each number must be an unique number or not? Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
0 BMAD 64 Report post Posted October 10, 2015 each number must be an unique number or not?not Quote Share this post Link to post Share on other sites
Allow for a random set of 32 numbers to be chosen from 0 to 100.
pair and average the 32 numbers in the order they appear ([1,2]; [3,4],...) to make 16 numbers
pair and average each of the 16 averaged numbers to make 8 new numbers
continue in this fashion until you have only 1 number.
What is the probability that this number will be be in the 40's?
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