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witzar

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Posts posted by witzar

  1. The area of the big triangle (S) is a sum of area of the small traingle (T) atop of the square and the area of trapezoid (let's call it M):


    S = M + T.
    Triangle T is similar to S, so:
    T/S = (a/21)^2.
    (where a denotes side of the square).
    Area of trapezoid M is:
    M = (21+a)*a/2.
    Heron's formula tor triangle S gives:
    S = 84.
    This leads to equation:
    84 = (21+a)*a/2 + 84*(a/21)^2
    that has one positive solution:
    a = 168/29.
  2. I've found 24 solutions:

    CE|G|AFH|BD
    CE|G|AFH|D|B
    CE|G|AF|H|BD
    CE|G|AF|H|D|B
    CE|G|A|FH|BD
    CE|G|A|FH|D|B
    CE|G|A|F|H|BD
    CE|G|A|F|H|D|B
    CG|E|AFH|BD
    CG|E|AFH|D|B
    CG|E|AF|H|BD
    CG|E|AF|H|D|B
    CG|E|A|FH|BD
    CG|E|A|FH|D|B
    CG|E|A|F|H|BD
    CG|E|A|F|H|D|B
    G|C|E|AFH|BD
    G|C|E|AFH|D|B
    G|C|E|AF|H|BD
    G|C|E|AF|H|D|B
    G|C|E|A|FH|BD
    G|C|E|A|FH|D|B
    G|C|E|A|F|H|BD
    G|C|E|A|F|H|D|B

    Only the last one (found by k-man) has no nested dolls.

    • Upvote 1
  3. The dice is rolled 5 times. Mr G will be behind only if #1 never shows, so probability of Mr P winning the side bet is

        p = (5/6)^5

    Therefore his average payoff is

        +5*p -5*(1-p) = 10p - 5 = 10*(5/6)^5 - 5 = -0.98
    

    Casino wins on average

        +1*(5/6) -4*(1/6) = 1/6
    

    with each roll, so expected casino's payoff after 5 rolls is

        5/6 = +0.83
    

    The average payoff for Mr G is

        5 - 10*(5/6)^5 - 5/6 = +0.15

  4. There is a legal solution, although not realistic in my opinion.

    When one has eliminated the impossible, then whatever remains, however improbable, must be the truth.

    This is what Sherlock Holmes used to say, who was a great master in retrograde chess.

    You can learn more about it from a great book with retrograde puzzles:

    The Chess Mysteries of Sherlock Holmes by Raymond M. Smullyan.

    Highly recommended.

    PS Well done, k-man

  5. 1. We form all possible sequences of 40 cases (39 empty and 1 with the treasure).


    2. Then we remove all sequences, where treasure is in the middle (1 < case# < 40). In other words we retain only sequences with treasure in case #1 or case #40.
    3. Finally we ask what kind of sequences are more frequent among retained: those with treasure in case #1 or those with treasure in case #40.

    It should be obvious that both types of sequences are equally frequent, since there is an obvious 1-1 correspondence between those two sets.

    (k-man nicely proved the same by counting cardinality of both sets and showing their equality.)
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