Resurrecting a discussion ...
Regarding wiping the numbers from the balls..
You see immediately that each operation puts a ball into B and another into C [or discards it]
If you want the identity of a ball in B after it's all over, simply place a mark on the first ball to get into B.
There's your identified ball.
Now to your contentions:
You contend two things, without proof. If you wipe the numbers off the balls they do not constitute a set. You cannot select randomly from an infinite number of objects. Let's see if they make sense. I have 15 balls. 5 are red, 5 are blue, 5 have no identifying marks.
The 15 balls do not constitute a set because they are not numbered.
Or perhaps the 5 red balls are a set because they are red and the 5 blue balls are a set because they are blue.
But the 5 unmarked balls are not a set because they are unmarked.
Interesting.
If the numbers are erased consider that bin A is an infinitely long trough, and the balls are ordered, left to right.
Now they are distinguishable, so even your criterion makes them a set.
Take the first two and put one of them into B [and put a dot on it] and the other into C [or discard it].
Repeat.
That ball with a dot is the identity of one ball that is in bin B, as requested. You cant choose randomly from an infinite set.
From the countably infinite set of rational numbers on the interval [3,4) i choose the number 3.14
Prove that that choice was not random.