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Showing content with the highest reputation on 10/16/17 in all areas

  1. 1 point
    Depends on what is meant by "have." [1] If have means "own," then yes. I can give someone something that I do not own. e.g. if I stole it. To give something, one only needs the ability to determine who controls it. If I control it, I can pass its control to someone else. So ... [2] If have means "possess the control of" then no. As stated, the paradox arises from the different antecedents of "with sorrow." Sorrow is the consequence of giving, not a possession before the act. But the language permits that interpretation by its form. Cute.
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