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If a>b>c...>0 for an arbitrary number of numbers, what is the limit as n approaches infinity of the nth root of the sum a^n+b^n+c^n+... using all of the same numbers?

I searched for this and did not see it posted, but I could have missed it.

This really has a simple answer, but the proof is somewhat complex.

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Having done a quick calculation, it seems that the answer is always 'a'. For n=0, you obviously have a+b+c.... which tends pretty quickly back to 'a' as n-> infinity.

I would guess the proof requires some expansion of:

an + (a-i)n + (a-j)n ...... [where i, j, etc > 0 ]

= r.an + n.an-1.(i+j+...) - 1/2n.(n+1).an-2.(i+j+...)2... [where r is the number of terms used originally]

and shows that the remaining terms tend to (r-1).an (probably iteratively)

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If a>b>c...>0 for an arbitrary number of numbers, what is the limit as n approaches infinity of the nth root of the sum a^n+b^n+c^n+... using all of the same numbers?

I searched for this and did not see it posted, but I could have missed it.

This really has a simple answer, but the proof is somewhat complex.

a, the biggest number?

As n goes to infinity, an gets larger more quickly than any number smaller than it.

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If a>b>c...>0 for an arbitrary number of numbers, what is the limit as n approaches infinity of the nth root of the sum a^n+b^n+c^n+... using all of the same numbers?

a.

To see this, write an+bn+cn+... as an x [1+(b/a)n+(c/a)n+...].

The terms b/a, c/a, ... are less than unity.

Raising them to arbitrarily high power creates vanishingly small values.

Thus as n approaches infinity the value of the square bracket approaches unity.

That leaves you with the nth root of an which is simply a.

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a.

To see this, write an+bn+cn+... as an x [1+(b/a)n+(c/a)n+...].

The terms b/a, c/a, ... are less than unity.

Raising them to arbitrarily high power creates vanishingly small values.

Thus as n approaches infinity the value of the square bracket approaches unity.

That leaves you with the nth root of an which is simply a.

You always have the easy answer, don't you!? :rolleyes: Nicely done!

Note to self: when bonanova is 'posting....' , wait before trying to post your own clever answer (which doesn't actually work) :P

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Most people got that the answer was "a." This is called the "infinity-norm." The general term with n is the n-norm. If a specific number is put in, as in 2, it is the 2-norm, also known as the Euclidean norm. So as n approaches infinity, it takes the name infinity-norm. I thought the proof from Bonanova was very nice and compact. Thanks.

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