I'm not sure if this is a problem or a paradox therefore its up to a moderator to judge.
I was just thinking of this so i want to see what others think. I doubt this has been done before otherwise, great minds think alike.
Prove or disprove that if R4(x)= ln(ln(ln(lnx)))),the limit of Rn(x)as n approaches infinity =0. x could only be one thing in this case so it really wouldn't be a variable.
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I'm not sure if this is a problem or a paradox therefore its up to a moderator to judge.
I was just thinking of this so i want to see what others think. I doubt this has been done before otherwise, great minds think alike.
Prove or disprove that if R4(x)= ln(ln(ln(lnx)))),the limit of Rn(x)as n approaches infinity =0. x could only be one thing in this case so it really wouldn't be a variable.
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