Jump to content
BrainDen.com - Brain Teasers

Leaderboard

Popular Content

Showing content with the highest reputation on 10/16/17 in Posts

  1. Depends on what is meant by "have." [1] If have means "own," then yes. I can give someone something that I do not own. e.g. if I stole it. To give something, one only needs the ability to determine who controls it. If I control it, I can pass its control to someone else. So ... [2] If have means "possess the control of" then no. As stated, the paradox arises from the different antecedents of "with sorrow." Sorrow is the consequence of giving, not a possession before the act. But the language permits that interpretation by its form. Cute.
    1 point
×
×
  • Create New...