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A man goes home at 4pm and see his wife cooking, he then goes take a nap and when he woke up (at 7pm) a marvelous dinner was prepared. At 10 pm they go to bed. In the morning at 7am, he killed her. Why?

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A man goes home at 4pm and see his wife cooking, he then goes take a nap and when he woke up (at 7pm) a marvelous dinner was prepared. At 10 pm they go to bed. In the morning at 7am, he killed her. Why?

Did they go to bed separately, and he woke up to find her in bed with another man?

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A man goes home at 4pm and see his wife cooking, he then goes take a nap and when he woke up (at 7pm) a marvelous dinner was prepared. At 10 pm they go to bed. In the morning at 7am, he killed her. Why?

It was an assisted suicide, and he was having a last supper with his wife.

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assisted suicide? well then..

his wife is a 96 year old woman with a disease that will kill her. she is making dinner for him at her choice. she will be dead the next day at 7 because that is her time to be given drugs to make her die, a choice made by her and her husband. therefore you could say that her husband killed her?

whatever

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I fully agree with kdawghomie’s answer. So, the man first killed his wife at 7am , then cooked her for 3 hours starting from 4pm, then ate her.

Edited by K Sengupta
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Were they together?

Maybe, the man came home early, and saw her cooking- for two!

A marvelous dinner was prepared- (but not for our man!)

At 10 pm they go to bed- (but not together!)

At 7am he killed her- (because she was finally alone.)

--Dave

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It was 7am of the day he took the nap and had killed her that morning. He came home later that day to see her cooking then ate her after the nap.

Edited by bucketdog27
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A man goes home at 4pm and see his wife cooking, he then goes take a nap and when he woke up (at 7pm) a marvelous dinner was prepared. At 10 pm they go to bed. In the morning at 7am, he killed her. Why?

It Is Obvious!

It Says He Saw His Wife COOKING.

Not Her Cooking Dinner But She Was Actually In The Oven.

He Ate Her So He Killed Her :)

Easy :)

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So after that lovely dinner she performed a marvellous Fellacio withs desert mmm. And He theoretically beat her to a pulp if you know what I mean. There for, I do not believe he murdered her they just had a wild night.

*u*

Otherwise they woke early as usual to their Daily bout of Halo or Call of Duty 4... in that case they both would have murdered each other

I'm sorry if that was bad I tried to euphamise it as much as possible please don't delete me with out a slap on the wrist first

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It Is Obvious!

It Says He Saw His Wife COOKING.

Not Her Cooking Dinner But She Was Actually In The Oven.

He Ate Her So He Killed Her :)

Easy :)

But the why did he do it? and if that was so, then how would she still be alive at 7 am to be murdered then if she was already murdered by cooking at 4?

~

There is a slight possibility, he found out that she was an alien and it was their Honey moon and pondered all night to Kill or not Kill , with Kill being the final verdict

Of worse he was really a man and shim just told him and he lost it

There are endless possibilities really.....So whats the REAL ANSWER?

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He killed her because it took her 3 hrs just to make a meal? :)

EDIT: Some people seem to be missing the concept of the cannibal answer, the riddle does not at any point say which order the things happened in, so it is possible that:

7AM: He kills her, and goes to work,

4PM: He sees her cooking (cooking, as in being cooked)

7PM: He eats her

10PM: They go to bed (her being inside his stomach :P)

completely possible :)

Edited by FaceValue
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Were they together?

Maybe, the man came home early, and saw her cooking- for two!

A marvelous dinner was prepared- (but not for our man!)

At 10 pm they go to bed- (but not together!)

At 7am he killed her- (because she was finally alone.)

--Dave

I almost completely agree with this solution by Hampster, but with only one flaw:

He saw his wife cooking for her lover, then he took a nap.

When he woke up, he saw them two having dinner, and the other guy left after that.

The husband went to bed at 10 pm with his wife. And then killed her the morning after...

Maybe, cause he was too tired to do it now, or something... :)

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It Is Obvious!

It Says He Saw His Wife COOKING.

Not Her Cooking Dinner But She Was Actually In The Oven.

He Ate Her So He Killed Her :)

Easy :)

thanks alot! i REALY like it when people dont use spoilers!

i LOVE having the point of riddles/word problems stolen away because someone is to lazy to insert a spoiler!

THANKS ALOT!!!

:lies:

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When the husband got home at 4pm, his wife was already cooking dinner, but he came home early, and she did not notice. So he went upstairs to sleep while she cooked, when he woke up at 7pm, he saw that a nice dinner was prepared, but she doesn’t know he's home, so he knows the dinner is for someone else. The man shes cheating with came to eat dinner, but then he had poisoned the dinner already. So at 10 when the cheater and the wife went to bed, the husband left. And the poison took action at 7am, which is when she died.

So we can only say he killed her when she died at 7am, not when he put the poison.

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If it was cannibalism, why did the guy sleep with her?

Yeah, man, I totally agree. That's some kinky stuff, right there. One or the other, but not both! You don't fraternize with your food!

Of the two theories presented, either the "cooking" wife being the meal, or the guy walking in on his wife romancing someone else, I'm more inclined to believe the latter. She's ambulant enough to cook, so murder seems more probable than euthenasia. The 4:00pm time suggests coming home early and seeing something he wasn't intended to see... so I take it she's not alone during meal prep and is, uh... multitasking. Why does the guy wait until morning? I don't know... maybe he needed closure.

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A man goes home at 4pm and see his wife cooking, he then goes take a nap and when he woke up (at 7pm) a marvelous dinner was prepared. At 10 pm they go to bed. In the morning at 7am, he killed her. Why?

A new thought in the midst of repetition. Pherhaps aman will shed some light on this.

It doesn't say the man saw his wife cooking in his own home. Maybe he saw her on his way home at another man's house. The dinner after the nap could really be either: at the husbands house or at the lover's house...or anywhere for that matter. Then at 10 pm THEY (the wife and the lover) went to bed and at 7:00 AM the husband killed his wife.

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A man goes home at 4pm and see his wife cooking, he then goes take a nap and when he woke up (at 7pm) a marvelous dinner was prepared. At 10 pm they go to bed. In the morning at 7am, he killed her. Why?

Now there are some arguments for the cooking theory.

Can you guys check the time line properly - she was killed at 7am

Look at my second quote. It claims that she was killed at 7 AM, and she was! But again, in the original riddle, it doesn't say which day. In the morning at 7am, [the husband] killed her. He goes to work. Then, [he] goes home at 4pm to see his wife cooking (she could be literally cooking in the pot, as stated before), so he then goes [to] take a nap and when he woke up (at 7pm) a marvelous dinner was prepared (does not state that two people ate it). At 10pm, they go to bed.

If it was cannibalism, why did the guy sleep with her?

She was in his stomach. When you eat something, do you immediately excrete it out in a second? People have different digestion speeds. It may have taken him a while.

But the why did he do it?

It says that a marvelous dinner was prepared. Maybe he killed his wife because he wanted the marvelous dinner. It may not be the most sane thing to do, but hey, they're riddles. No one in a riddle is fully sane.

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