[rookie1ja]

Is it possible to give what we don't have? - Back to the Paradoxes

Sophist: "Yes. Greedy man gives his cash with sorrow. However, he doesn't have the cash with sorrow, so he gives what he doesn't have."

[davidsparkman]

Humph, the government does that all the time...

[Headswabby]

This is more of a play on words. The greedy man is not actually giving his sorrow away. He is keeping it for himself. Therefore this paradox does not make sense since the paradox has to do with the sorrow, not the money.

[bonanova]

Depends on what is meant by "have."

[1] If have means "own," then yes. I can give someone
something that I do not own. e.g. if I stole it.

To give something, one only needs the ability to determine who
controls it. If I control it, I can pass its control to someone else.

So ...

[2] If have means "possess the control of" then no.

As stated, the paradox arises from the different antecedents of
"with sorrow." Sorrow is the consequence of giving, not a possession
before the act. But the language permits that interpretation by
its form.

Cute.

[youchan]

absolutely it is not possible..

how come?

[retskcah .eht]

I was going to solve this butt...
Headswabby and bonanova already did it.
well done

[redfusion17]

There is another solution.

As long as you have something. You can give nothing.

[Bear]

Yes I do it every day in every way. I give love I do not own love or possess it so there for it is not mine to give

[Some Guy]

Yes - you can give your "all" while not having it "all".

[Stiles52]

Quote

There is another solution.

As long as you have something. You can give nothing.

Oo. I like that. Very philisophical