Not sure if this is relevant but just say, for example, 10% of infinity, ?/10, is still ? but a differnet level of infinity correct?

like

(?/10) / ?

it wouldnt be ?/? as in 1 as in 100%.... it would be .1 as in 10%

Am I just shootin in the dark here or do I have a slembance of a point? Help me out here lol

## Welcome to BrainDen.com - Brain Teasers Forum

Welcome to BrainDen.com - Brain Teasers Forum. Like most online communities you must register to post in our community, but don't worry this is a simple free process. To be a part of BrainDen Forums you may create a new account or sign in if you already have an account. As a member you could start new topics, reply to others, subscribe to topics/forums to get automatic updates, get your own profile and make new friends. Of course, you can also enjoy our collection of amazing optical illusions and cool math games. If you like our site, you may support us by simply clicking Google "+1" or Facebook "Like" buttons at the top. If you have a website, we would appreciate a little link to BrainDen. Thanks and enjoy the Den :-) |

Guest Message by DevFuse

# Alex gets even with writersblock. Or does he?

Started by bonanova, Oct 14 2007 08:00 AM

35 replies to this topic

### #31

Posted 02 January 2011 - 01:00 PM

Spoiler for i guess

### #32

Posted 02 January 2011 - 09:06 PM

is there a number that does not contain any digit?

### #33

Posted 03 January 2011 - 12:33 AM

Here is my solution.He picked 4, becouse he said: Hey!Not all numbers have a 3 in them.

But he lost.Why?Becouse numbers are infinite, how can you get a precentage of something you can't count?

But he lost.Why?Becouse numbers are infinite, how can you get a precentage of something you can't count?

### #34

Posted 03 January 2011 - 04:01 PM

Here is my solution.He picked 4, becouse he said: Hey!Not all numbers have a 3 in them.

But he lost.Why?Becouse numbers are infinite, how can you get a precentage of something you can't count?

Very simple. What is the percentage of even numbers in the set of all natural numbers? The answer is 50%. Even though both sets are infinite, since one set is a subset of another set it can be expressed as a percentage of the total set. In some cases it can be calculated precisely, but in some (like this problem) it can only be approximated.

### #35

Posted 03 January 2011 - 06:27 PM

Spoiler for i think

### #36

Posted 04 January 2011 - 06:56 AM

Looking the other way round: What is the probability that a number doesn't include '3'?

Spoiler for It would be

Spoiler for hence as the number of digits increase

#### 0 user(s) are reading this topic

0 members, 0 guests, 0 anonymous users