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Guest Message by DevFuse

Is it possible to give what we don't have?

Started by rookie1ja, Jun 09 2007 01:00 PM

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54 replies to this topic

#1 rookie1ja

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Posted 09 June 2007 - 01:00 PM

Is it possible to give what we don't have? - Back to the Paradoxes

Sophist: "Yes. Greedy man gives his cash with sorrow. However, he doesn't have the cash with sorrow, so he gives what he doesn't have."

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#2 davidsparkman

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Posted 20 June 2007 - 03:45 PM

Humph, the government does that all the time...

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#3 Headswabby

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Posted 29 June 2007 - 10:59 PM

This is more of a play on words. The greedy man is not actually giving his sorrow away. He is keeping it for himself. Therefore this paradox does not make sense since the paradox has to do with the sorrow, not the money.

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#4 bonanova

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Posted 20 July 2007 - 08:25 AM

Depends on what is meant by "have."

[1] If have means "own," then yes. I can give someone
something that I do not own. e.g. if I stole it.

To give something, one only needs the ability to determine who
controls it. If I control it, I can pass its control to someone else.

So ...

[2] If have means "possess the control of" then no.

As stated, the paradox arises from the different antecedents of
"with sorrow." Sorrow is the consequence of giving, not a possession
before the act. But the language permits that interpretation by
its form.

Cute.