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Double Liar Paradox (Jourdain's paradox)
Posted 21 November 2007 - 03:38 AM
Posted 29 February 2008 - 04:23 PM
The lying example doesn't work. Lying and not telling the truth are entirely different. When you lie, you are telling someone something that you believe is incorrect. When you don't tell the truth, you are still able to say what you believe, be incorrect, and not be lying about it.
The tricky part with this paradox is that one statement means nothing without the other. In any event where the statement can stand alone it's not a paradox. Ex: "This statement is false." The statement that is being called false is false, while the entire sentence is true. What is false does not include the word false itself.
The only circular part about this problem is trying to figure it out. The problem itself isn't circular, they both exist at the same time, in the same space.
Even knowing that, I'm having a hard time getting out of the circle. Can anyone else get out of it?
I think what I'm reading there is that the statement being referred to is false, not the statement being called false is false, with what was said there's only 1 statement, you can go around in circles if you try and break it down. Theoretically, anything you say can be either condensed or broken down depending on what it is. I am confused by what he means by What is false does not include the word false itself, perhaps implying that the word false in the statement isn't false? Any thoughts?
Posted 26 March 2008 - 05:17 PM
Inscription on the other side is true this is not true
Inscription on the other side is not true this card is true but if the other card is false it can't be.
Posted 30 March 2008 - 02:31 AM
Let F be the Face side and B be the Back. After you have read both sides, it seems that B declares opposite to that of F and vice versa. Therefore both statements are false (or if you prefer), the statement that: The two statements cancel each other.
Therefore neither statement is true and both are liars hence 'Double Liars'.
Edited by beyond-logic, 30 March 2008 - 02:31 AM.
Posted 11 April 2008 - 08:30 PM
Posted 22 April 2008 - 11:02 AM
Posted 25 April 2008 - 04:30 PM
it is just like in math.
rule 1) 0 * anything is.... 0
rule 2) infinity * anything is... infinity
what is that absence of everything * the fulfilliment of everything?
its impossible to end the problem, unless u know calc.
i do believe that it is an infinit loop. but then again, it could be based on how u read it. and your thought process
This is not a paradox at all. It's absolutely simple.
Sure INFINITY TIMES ANYTHING = INFINITY.
But ZERO is NOT anything, it is NOTHING.
If I ask for something ZERO times, I get ZERO somethings in return.
If I ask for everything ZERO times, I get ZERO everythings in return.
If I ask for INFINITE somethings, I get INFINITE somethings in return.
If I ask for INFINITE nothings, I get INFINITE nothings in return.
ZERO, the absence of something, governs this equation, and therefore results in an answer of ZERO.
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