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# another very long task

### #1

Posted 12 August 2012 - 06:23 AM

### #2

Posted 12 August 2012 - 04:10 PM

let heads be 1 and tails be 0. can you flip a coin enough times to form an irrational number?

This puzzle statement may be undercontrained,

### #3

Posted 12 August 2012 - 04:59 PM

### #4

Posted 12 August 2012 - 08:10 PM

clearly no finite number of flips will be enough, assuming you're not allowed to apply a function to it.

but can you mathematically flip an infinite number of coins to represent an irrational number?

i guess what I'm asking is, is the digits of a single irrational number countably infinite?

### #5

Posted 12 August 2012 - 09:44 PM

### #6

Posted 13 August 2012 - 04:15 AM

### #7

Posted 13 August 2012 - 05:33 PM

### #8

Posted 13 August 2012 - 06:16 PM

I'm very interested in knowing how you get 16 flips for the value pi, since pi is transcendental.

### #9

Posted 13 August 2012 - 07:00 PM

*The greatest challenge to any thinker is stating the problem in a way that will allow a solution.*

- Bertrand Russell

### #10

Posted 16 August 2012 - 05:36 AM

okay maybe some clarification is in order.

clearly no finite number of flips will be enough, assuming you're not allowed to apply a function to it.

but can you mathematically flip an infinite number of coins to represent an irrational number?

i guess what I'm asking is, is the digits of a single irrational number countably infinite?

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