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Water into wine and back
#1
Posted 08 May 2012 - 09:51 AM
Is it possible, by thus transferring the same amount of fluid, any number of times, to reach a state where the percentage of wine in each mixture is the same?
- Bertrand Russell
#2
Posted 08 May 2012 - 02:19 PM
#3
Posted 08 May 2012 - 03:54 PM
Edited by Barcallica, 08 May 2012 - 03:57 PM.
#4
Posted 08 May 2012 - 05:19 PM
#5
Posted 08 May 2012 - 06:21 PM
Yes. Assume complete mixing.Are we assuming that the mixtures are perfectly mixed and that all samples of the mixtures will have the same percentage of each liquid as the entire glass?
Spoiler for Otherwise,
- Bertrand Russell
#6
Posted 08 May 2012 - 06:22 PM
Spoiler for Not so sure but
Yeah, you have it. Nice.
- Bertrand Russell
#7
Posted 08 May 2012 - 06:31 PM
hmmm.
Spoiler for
Precisely. Well done.
- Bertrand Russell
#8
Posted 09 May 2012 - 02:50 AM
#9
Posted 09 May 2012 - 05:56 AM
#10
Posted 09 May 2012 - 07:39 AM
The question doesnt say that both glasses contain equal volume of liquid.
It should. I've made that edit.
Thanks for making the point.
- Bertrand Russell
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