Once in a while, one sees a column with a mathematical bent in a newspaper. More often than not, there's
something that doesn't seem quite right about it. In the Chicago Tribune column found here,
a claim is made that you could have purchased 10-year bonds with a 3% rate at the beginning of 2011,
sold them at the end of 2011 (when similar 10-year bonds had a 2% rate), and made a profit of around
16% on your original investment. Can anyone offer any mathematical justification for this claim?
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Guest Message by DevFuse
Investment Problem
Started by superprismatic, Jan 23 2012 09:58 PM
4 replies to this topic
#1
Posted 23 January 2012 - 09:58 PM
#2
Posted 23 January 2012 - 10:56 PM
I can get a 15.4% profit, but I'm not sure I'm attacking the problem right.... I'm a H&W actuary, not Investment
#3
Posted 23 January 2012 - 10:57 PM
Spoiler for I'm not sure...
#4
Posted 23 January 2012 - 11:01 PM
Spoiler for thoughts
#5
Posted 24 January 2012 - 05:04 AM
I think curr3nt and dD are essentially right, they're just omitting a bit of a fudge factor in the article -- it mentions bonds at the beginning of the year selling for "a little over 3 percent" and at the end of the year "just under 2 percent", and they may very well be rounding the return up to 16% from an actual value just over 15.5%.
And all of that makes much more sense than the real estate market around here.
And all of that makes much more sense than the real estate market around here.
Be both a riddler and a guesser in a logic puzzle to the death...
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