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#21 d3k3


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Posted 09 March 2009 - 08:46 PM

Consider a formula like the combined gas law: [pressure]x[volume]/[temp]=[constant]. Is a temperature of 0 degrees Celsius indeterminate? Of course not. However, if you switch it to Kelvin, in which zero can be described as the absence of heat, then you're back to the previous definition.

The perfect/ideal/combined gas law only makes sense if the pressure and temperature are absolute. Celsius/Fahrenheit temperatures, and gage pressures are strictly verboten.
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#22 ADParker


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Posted 28 March 2009 - 08:44 AM

Ask Dr. Math :D
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#23 Pet_Rock


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Posted 29 March 2009 - 05:15 PM

If zero to the nth power is zero, and n to the zeroth power is one, then what is zero to the zeroth power?

Spoiler for silly guess

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#24 JJacquelin



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Posted 18 September 2011 - 09:51 AM

There is a basic ambiguity : You cannot discuss about 0^0 without specify the related field of matematics (set theory, or elementary algebra, or topology, or...). i.e. :
"Zero to the Zero-th Power", translated from "Zéro puissance zéro"
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#25 phillip1882


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Posted 19 September 2011 - 06:15 PM

it makes the bionomial theorm nicer to say 0^0 = 1; though that's hardly a proof.
but math is there for convience as much as anything.
for example, if we define some scientific constants to be 1, it can make alot of other scientific calculations easier.
but i agree, though we say 0^0 = 1, that doesn't nessicarly mean 0^0 = 1.
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